Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 19.06.2025 10:38
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Does any other guys get turned on by dick pic makes you lick lips because you what to suck?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Even Captain James T. Kirk was trapped in a woman's body. Don't you think he'd support trans people?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.